Originally Posted By: WayneConrad
I seem to recall that the ratio of a toxic and an effective dose of acetominophen is somewhat low; the ratio of a toxic and an effective dose of ibuprofin is significantly higher. Is that correct?

I have no idea about any actual ratios, but in my mind, it's sort of an apples to oranges comparison. An acute ibuprofen overdose doesn't produce the kind of really toxic by-products like acetominophen does. Actually, I believe that people who deliberately, massively overdose on ibuprofen often don't really show any symptoms of it.