Yes, good point.

Here is where I am confused and have concerns (help in understanding this appreciated):

1. 95% in 21 days, and 98% in 42 days. So, does that mean 3% of cases are diagnosed/occur between days 21 to 42? Doesn't that mean that at least 3 out of 100 cases will emerge after 21 days ? And what happened to the last 2 percent? When do they emerge?

2. "health care workers who have attended patients or cleaned their rooms should be considered as “close contacts” and monitored for 21 days after the last exposure, even if their contact with a patient occurred when they were fully protected by wearing personal protective equipment" The "fully protected" qualifier bothers me; what if they weren't "fully protected?" The Dallas nurses apparently were "fully protected" by the standards they had in place at the time---but still became infected (albeit within 21 days). So, no risk despite 3% of the cases emerging between days 21 and 42 or longer?

I hope that I am not being paranoid, but I keep feeling that the positive assurances and certainty I am hearing are not fully supported by complete and fully certain science and experience. IMO there is just too much emphasis on 21 days when there seems to be evidence that there can be up to possibly 5% (3% 21-42 days, 2% unknown) of cases that emerge after 21 days. That seems a big risk to me. The WHO statement says that it is "confident" that after 42 days no more Ebola cases will emerge, e.g. that an "outbreak is over." So, to me this says that up until 42 days, more cases can emerge.

Here is another of my points of confusion; our military are going to be quarantined for 21 days when (or actually before) they return, but apparently civilian travelers will not be, or at least will be let to "self monitor." IMO I simply can't resolve this into a consistent view of the precautions we should be taking.

Maybe I am missing something; I'm not arguing, I'm just trying to read and understand that implications of these statements says to me that there is a risk at least until the 42 day point. So why is 21 days the point at which the "all clear" is being sounded? To me it really sounds like it is a "95% clear" signal.
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"Better is the enemy of good enough."